Bihar Public Service Commission-2015

1:Which country has largest coastline?

A. USA               B. Australia

C. Canada         D. India

Explanation – The Top 5 Countries with the Longest Coastline.

Country Coastline Length (km) Coastline Length (miles)
1. Canada 202 080 km 125 570 miles
2.Indonesia 54,716 km 33,999 miles
3.Russia 37,653 km 23,396 miles
4.Philippines 36,289 km 22,559 miles
5.Japan 29,751 km 18,486 miles


2: The largest producer of aluminium in the world is

A.France                           B. India

C.USA                              D. Italy

Explanation- Aluminium represents the second largest metals market in the world. China is the largest aluminium producing country in the world. Russia is second, Canada is second and U.S.A is third largest producer of aluminium. Hence, c is correct option.


3: The Pennines(Europe), the Appalachians(America) and the Aravallis (India) are examples of

A.Young Mountain                           B.Old Mountain

C.Block Mountain                           D.Fold Mountain

Explanation- Old Mountains have rounded features and low elevation with worn out fold. Hence, the Pennines (Europe), the Appalachians (America) and the Aravallis (India) are examples of old mountains.

4: Match the rivers with the cities through which they are flowing and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

             City            River
a.Rotterdam 1. Seine
b.Paris 2.Potomac
c.Budapest 3.Rhine
d.Washington 4.Danube

Explanation- Rotterdam is situated near Rhine River; Paris is situated near Seine River; Budapest is situated near Danube River; Washington is situated near Potomac River. Hence, c is correct option.

5: Which is the largest metal trading centre?

A.Johannesburg                  B.New York

C.London                        D.Singapore

Explanation- The London is a wholesale over-the-counter market for the trading of gold and silver. Trading is conducted amongst members of the London Bullion Market Association (LBMA), loosely overseen by the Bank of England. Most of the members are major international banks or bullion dealers and refiners.


6: Which of the following drainage systems fall Bay of Bengal?

A. Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godavari              B.Mahanadi, Krishna and Cauvery

C. Luni, Narmada and Tapti                      D.Both (A) and (B)


Explanation- A number of large rivers—the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri (Cauvery) on the west and the Ganges (Ganga) and Brahmaputra on the north—flow into the Bay of Bengal. Hence, D is correct option.


7: The oldest oil field in India is

A. Bombay High, Maharashtra            B. Ankleshwar, Gujarat

C.Navagam, Gujarat                     D. Digboi, Assam

Explanation– Digboi, Assam is the oldest oil field in India. It is known as the Oil City of Assam where the first oil well in Asia was drilled. The first refinery was started here as early as 1901.Hence, D is correct option.


8: In India, Yarlung Zangbo River’ is known as

Explanation-The Yarlung Tsangpo is the part of Brahmaputra River that flows through Tibet, known by its Tibetan name. It originates at Angsi Glacier in western Tibet southeast of Mount Kailash and Lake Manasarovar. Hence, option c is correct answer.

9: Which one of the following is the the driest station?

A.Mumbai      B.Delhi

C.Leh         D.Bengaluru

Explanation- Leh has a cold desert climate with long, harsh winters from October to early March, with minimum temperatures well below freezing for most of the winter. The city gets occasional snowfall during winter. The weather in the remaining months is generally fine and warm during the day. Hence, option C is correct answer.


10: Which amongst the following States has not identified tribal community?

A.Maharashtra          B.Chhattisgarh

C.Haryana              D.Karnataka

Explanation- India is a land of multitudinous culture and peoples. Every state of India has its own culture and tradition. There are certain states in India where the number of tribal population is much more than that of the other states. Major population of tribes are found in Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and North East “The Seven Sister States of India. Hence, option c is correct answer.


11: Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is located at

A.Chandigarh        B.Bharatpur

C. Gurgaon          D.Gandhinagar

Explanation- Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is located at Sultanpur fifteen kilometres from Gurgaon, Haryana and 50 km from Delhi in India. This Bird Sanctuary, ideal for birding and bird watchers, is best visited in winters when a large number of migratory birds come here. Hence, C is correct option.

12: The forest area in India per person (in average hectare) is

A.0.23           B.0.34

C.0.20           D.0.29



13: Which of the following States has agricultural area less than 60%?

A.West Bengal         B.Punjab

C.U.P                 D.Bihar



14:‘Nagarjuna Sagar Multipurpose Project’ is on which river?

A.Tapti            B.Kosi

C.Godavari         D.Krishna

Explanation-Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is the world’s largest masonry dam. It was built on the Krishna River at Nagarjuna Sagar. The construction duration of the dam was between the years of 1955 and 1967.


15: Dalmia Nagar of Bihar is famous for

A.Silk           B.Cement

C.Leather        D.Jute

Explanation- Dalmianagar is one of the oldest and biggest industrial towns in India. Dalmianagar developed into a massive industrial town from the 1940s till the 1980s with factories producing sugar, cement, paper, chemicals, vanaspati, etc. employing top professionals of the country.


16:  How much square metres forest area is there in Bihar?

A.2812 sq.metres          B.3612 sq.metres

C.2461sq. metres          D.2612 sq.metres

Explanation-The options seem to be wrong because the area in meter square will be far more than the figure mentioned in options.


17: The two states of India, most richly endowed with iron ore, are

A.Bihar & West Bengal     B.Odisha & M.P

C.Bihar & Odisha          D. West Bengal& M.P

Explanation- Odisha and Madhya Pradesh are the states richly endowed with iron ore. Hence B is correct option.


18: What is chiefly found at Jharia in Jharkhand?

A.Thorium      B.Silk

C.Gold         D.Coal

Explanation-Jharia (Dhanbad) has abundance of coal and hence known as coal capital of India. Hence, D is correct option.


19: Which of the following towns is located easternmost Bihar?

A.Bhagalpur        B.Patna

C.Katihar          D.Purnia

Explanation-The easternmost town of Bihar is Kathihar because of its location in far east of Bihar than other three.


20: Which of the following lakes is situated in Bihar?

A.Anupam Lake         B. Sambhar Lake

C. Sukhna lake       D.Kama Lake

Explanation-Anupam lake is situated in Kaimur hills near Bhabhua.


21: The Decentralization System was recommended by

A.C. Rajagopalachari                           B. J.B.Kriplani

C.Balwant Rai                                  D.Ashok Mehta

Explanation-The decentralized system was introduced with the recommendation (three tier system of administration) of Balwant Rai Mehta Committee in 1957.


22: Mahalanobis Plan Model adopted in India in the mid-fifties aimed at

A.building a strong defence industry base      B.setting up heavy industries which were capital intensive

C.curbing inflation in the economy             D.removing unemployment within a short period

Explanation-Mahalanobis plan in India (2nd Five year Plan) was aimed at setting up of heavy industries and multipurpose projects.


23: Match Column-A with Column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

               Column-A                 Column-B
a. 1955 1. Export-Import Bank of India
b. 1964 2.Industrial Development Bank of India
c. 1982 3.Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
d. 1987 4. Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction


Explanation-The establishment year of financial institutions are :EXIM: 1982, IDBI:1964, ICI:1955, BI&FR: 1987


24: Match Column-A with Column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

         Column-A         Column-B
a. Open-general license 1. Employment
b.TRYSEM 2.External trade
c. Whole price index 3. Credit control
d. Cash-reserve ratio 4. Inflation

Explanation-Open general license is associated with External trade, TRYSEM was the scheme of GOI for Employment, Wholesale price index is associated with Inflation and Cash reserve ratio is with credit control in India.


25: The controlling authority of government expenditure  is

A. The Reserve Bank of India           B.The Planning Commission

C.  The Finance Ministry               D.The Finance Commission

Explanation-The controlling authority of government expenditure in India is department of expenditure under ministry of finance.


26: Effective revenue Deficit was introduced in the Union Budget of 

A. 2010-10              B.2011-12

C. 2009-10              D.2012-13

Explanation-Effective revenue deficit was introduced in the union budget of 2011-12.


27: Interest payment is an item of

A. revenue expenditure            B. capital expenditure

C.plan expenditure                D.None of the above

Explanation-Interest Payment is an item of revenue expenditure.


28: The HDI rank of India as per the HDR-2014 is

A.137            B.128

C.135            D.147

Explanation-The HDI rank of India as per the HDR-2014 is 135.


29: Consider the following consumer price indices:

I.Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers

II.Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers

III. Consumer Price Index for Rural Labourers

IV. Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual Employees

Explanation-Central Statistical organization complies indices for option I,II & III.


30: What is the total production of oilseeds in India in 2013-14?

A.34.32 million tonnes        B.43.34 million tonnes

C.20.89 million tonnes        D.30.72 million tonnes

Explanation- Oilseed production in India in 2013-14 is 34 million tones. Hence, A is correct option.


31: India earns maximum foreign exchange by export of

A.iron             B.tea

C.textile          D.rubber

Explanation-India earns maximum foreign exchange by the export of textiles.


32: Foreign Currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called

A. hot currency            currency

C.soft currency                      D.hard currency

Explanation- The foreign currency with a tendency of quick migration is called hot currency.


33: Which one of the following is not included in the National Food Security Missions?

A.Oilseeds            B.Wheat

C.Rice                D.Pulses

Explanation- Oilseed production is not included in the national food security mission.


34: Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of  meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on

A.1st April,1992           B.1st April,1994

C.31st March,1996          D.31st March,1997

Explanation-Ad hoc treasury bill system was abolished on 31st March,1997.


35: R.N Malhotra Committee is associated with

A.sick industries reforms sector         D.banking sector

Explanation-R N Malhotra committee is associated with insurance sector.


36: Service tax in India was  introduced in the year

A.1994-95        B.1996-97

C.1998-92        D.1991-92

Explanation- Service tax was introduced in year 1994-95.


37: Convertibility of the rupee implies

Explanation-The convertibility of rupees implies freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice versa.


38 : Consider the following important  sources tax revenue for the Central Government:

I.Corporation tax

II.Taxes on income other than corporation tax

III. Customs

IV.Union exercise duties

Explanation-The correct chronology is I-II-IV-III 

39: Which one of the following is the prescribed investment limit for medium enterprises in the manufacturing sector as per the micro,small and medium Enterprises Development Act,2006?

A.More than 10 crore and less than 2 crore.             B.More than 2 crore and less than 5 crore.

C.More than 5 crore and less than 10 crore.             D.More than 10 crore

Explanation-More than 5 crore and less than 10 crore.


40: What does infant mortality rate refer to?

Explanation-Ratio of live births children who die before their first year, out of 1000 live births.

41: In which of the following years was the trade balance favourable to India?

A.1970-71 & 1974-75       B.1972-73 & 1976-77

C.1972-73 & 1975-76       D.1971-72 & 1976-77



42: Consider the following agreements:

I. ISLFTA (India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement)

II. SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area)

III. CECA (Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement between India and Singapore)

IV.SAPTA (South Asian Preferential Trade Arrangement)

Explanation- SAPTA (1993), SAFTA (1995), CECA (2006) and ISLFTA (2013-14-15).Hence, option is not correct.


43: During which year was the annual average growth rate (at constant prices) of agriculture and allied sectors negative?

A.2002-03        B.2003-04

C.2004-05        D.2006-07



44: Consider the following statements :

I. Varsha Bima, the rainfall insurance scheme, is managed by the Agriculture Insurance company of India Limited (AICIL)

II.The scheme was introduced during the 2007 south-west monsoon period


45: consider the following statements:

I. bank rate is the rate of interest which RBI charges its client on theer long term borrowing

II.repo rate is the rate of interest which RBI charges its clients on their long term borrowing

Explanation- Bank rate is the rate of interest implemented by RBI when it lends money to a public sector bank for the long term basis, i.e. from a period ranging from 90 days to 1 year. REPO rate is the rate of interest which RBI implements on the short term loans, i.e., from a period ranging between 2 days to 3 months (90 Days). The only difference is that REPO rate is used to lend money for short term while bank rate for long term. Hence, D is correct option.


46. Financial sector reform in India consist of

A. lowering down of CRR and SLR        B.entry po private firms in insurance sector

C. deregulation of rate of interest     D.all of the above


47.Which of the following is not a component of bharat nirman?

A. rural housing                    B.rural electrification

C.  agro-based industries           D.rural telephony

Explanation-Six components of Bharat Nirman are as follows: water supply; Housing; Rural telecom connectivity; roads; rural electrification; irrigation. Hence, C is correct option

48.According to the Planning Commission of the India , which of the following are correct for the poverty?


49.Consider the following schemes:


The correct chronological sequence of the launching of these schemes is

Explanation-Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP): This was a totally centrally financed programme introduced in 1983. Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM) : TRYSEM was introduced in 1979 to provide technical skills and to upgrade the traditional skills of rural youth belonging to families below the poverty line. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY) : In the last year of the Seventh Plan(1989), JRY was launched with a total allocation of Rs. 2600 crores to generate 931 million man days of employment. Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS) The Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS) was introduced w.e.f. 2nd October, 1993 in the rural areas of 1778 blocks of 261 districts in which the Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS) was in operation. Hence, D is correct option.



50.Match column-A with column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

               Column-A                 Column-B
a. National Agricultural Policy 1. 2004
b. Marine Fishing Policy 2.1978
c. New Foreign Trade Policy 3.2000
d.7th Finance Commission 4.2014


Explanation-The National Agricultural Policy Center (NAPC) was established in 2000 through the work of the Project of the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, funded by the Government of Italy, to be part of the Syrian Ministry of Agriculture and Agrarian. MARINE FISHING POLICY was incorporated in 2004. The new foreign trade policy was announced on 2014-19. The Seventh finance Commission was incorporated in the year 1978 consisting of Shri J.M. Shelat as the chairman. Hence, D is correct option.


51. Who founded the Pagal Panth?

A. Bulleh Shah

B. Karam Shah

C. Yaduvendra Singh

D. Swami Sahajananda

Explanation- Karam Shah was the founder of the Pagal Panth – a semi-religious sect having influence in the northern districts of Bengal. An activist fervor to the sect was imparted by Tipu, the son and successor of Karam Shah. Hence, B is correct option.


52. Who were the Faraizis?

A. Followers of Haji Shariatullah

B. Followers of Dadu

C. Followers of the Arya samaj

D. Followers of the Muslim League


Explanation-The Faraizi Movement was founded in 1818 by Haji Shariatullah alongside a number of Bengali Muslims. After returning from Mecca (hence being given the title Hajji) after 19 years, Haji Shariat Ullah, seeing the degraded Muslims of Bengal, called on them to give up un-Islamic practices and act upon their duties as Muslims (fard).Hence , A is correct option.


53. The correct geographical location for the Ramosi Uprising was

A. Western India

B. Eastern Ghats

C. Eastern India

D. Western Ghats

Explanation-The Ramosis, the hill tribes of the Western ghats, had not recounciled to British rule andthe British pattern of administration. They rose under Chittur Singh in 1822 and plundered the country around Satara. Again, there were eruptions in 1825-26 and the disturbances continued till 1829.Hence, D is correct answer.


54. The Waghera Uprising happened in

A. Surat

B. Poona

C. Calicut

D. Baroda


Explanation- A resentment against the alien rule coupled with the exactions of the Gaekwar of Baroda supported by the British government compelled the Waghera chiefs of the Okha Mandal to take arms. The Wagheras carried out inroads into British territory during 1818-19. A peace treaty was signed in November 1820.Hence, D is correct option.


55. In order to control the media in India, ‘Acts’ were passed in

A. 1835, 1867, 1878, 1908

B. 1854, 1864, 1872, 1910

C. 1854, 1872, 1908, 1910

D. 1867, 1908, 1910, 1919


Explanation-In the given option, A is correct option for India act were passed during British.


56. The process of split in the Congress in the early years of the twentieth century began over

A. Strategies of the Congress Movement

B. Objectives of the congress movement

C. Participation of the people in the Congress Movement

D. All of the above

Explanation- *


57. ‘New Lamps for Old’ was a series of articles (1893 – 94) that criticized the congress for being out of the touch with the ‘proletariate’.

Who was the author of these articles?

A. Aurobindo Ghosh

B. A.O. Hume

C. G.K. Gokhale

D. B.G. Tilak


Explanation- “New Lamps for Old” was a series of articles(1893-94) written by Aurobindo Gosh that criticize the congress for being out of touch with the ‘proletariate’. Hence, A is correct option.


58. Fill in the blanks:

The Nehru Report was drafted by a committee headed by ………. And the subject was ……… .

A. Motilal Nehru and Jawaharlal Nehru; India’s relationship with the British Empire

B. Jawaharlal Nehru; Local Self-Government in India

C. Motilal Nehru; Constitutional arrangements in India

D. Jawaharlal Nehru; Constitutional arrangements in India

Explanation-In May 1928, a seven members committee under the chairmanship of Motilal Nehru was formed to determine the basic features of the future constitution of India.Hence, C is correct option.


59. What was the common relationship between Katherine Mayo, Aldous Huxley, Charles Andrews and William Digby?

A. They wrote commentaries on the condition of India during the British rule

B. They were supporters of the Indian National Movement

C. They were opponents of the Indian National Movements

D. They were friends of Mahatma Gandhi  



60. Who penned the following lines?

“Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab hamare dil me hai/ Dekhna hai zor kitna baju-e-qatil me hai.”

A. Bismil

B. Rajguru

C. Bhagat Singh

D. Azad

Explanation-Sarfaroshi ki Tamanna is a patriotic poem written in Urdu by Ram Prasad Bismil, who was involved in motivating the Indian Independence Movement during the British Raj period in India.Hence, A is correct option.


61. Who raised the demand of ‘Complete Independence’ for the first time in 1921?

A. Maulana Muhammad Ali

B. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Maulana Hasrat Mohani

Explanation-The first demand for complete independence from Britain was raised in the forum of the Indian National Congress (Congress) in 1921 by Maulana Hasrat Mohani and Swami Kumaranand.Hence, D is correct option.


62. Identify the years those are closest to the founding of the Communist Party of India and the RSS respectively.

A. 1915, 1914

B. 1925, 1925

C. 1928, 1925

D. 1925, 1929

Explanation-On December 26, 1925, a few ardent young patriots moved by the urge to free the motherland from colonial bondage, inspired by the Great October Socialist Revolution and fired with revolutionary zeal, braved imperialist persecution and came together in the city of Kanpur,to form the Communist Party of India with a view to fight for national independence and a future of socialism.The RSS was founded on Vijayadasami Day, 27 September 1925 as a social organization to provide character training through Hindu discipline, to unite the Hindu community.Hence,B is correct option.


63. Swami Sahajananda Saraswati formed the All India United Kisan Sabha with the demand for the ‘ nationalization of land and waterways’

A. Just before his death

B. At a very young age

C. In the 1930s

D. In the 1920s

Explanation- The All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) was formed with some Congress Socialists at the Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress on April 11, 1936.All India Kisan Sabha, the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha became one of its provincial units. Sahajanand organized the Anti-Compromise Conference with Subhas Chandra Bose against the British and Congress.


64. Fill in the blanks :

In …………., the rights of the tenants on land in Bengal and Bihar were given by the Bengal Tenancy Act.

A. 1885

B. 1886

C. 1889

D. 1900


Explanation-The Bengal Tenancy Act 1885 was an enactment of the Bengal government that defined the rights of zamindars (lords) and their tenants in response to a widespread peasant revolt that threatened the stability of the British Colonial Government. Hence, A is correct option.


65. Which round table conference held in 1932?

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. Fourth

Explanation-The three Round Table Conferences of 1930–32 were a series of conferences organized by the British Government to discuss constitutional reforms in India. They were conducted as per the recommendation by the report submitted by the Simon Commission in May 1930. Demands for swaraj, or self-rule, in India had been growing increasingly strong. By the 1930s, many British politicians believed that India needed to move towards dominion status


66. One of the popular beliefs in Bihar during the Non – Cooperation Movement of 1920-22 was that victory would come to them because Gandhi

A. Was the epitome of Dharma

B. Was an accomplished politician

C. Knew the ways to defeat the English

D. Knew English

Explanation- British Colonial policy was to assimilate Indians in their administrative set up and Gandhi knew without cooperation of Indian they couldn’t survive.Hence, C is correct option.


67. Who among the following was/were peasant leader(s) from Bihar?




Choose the correct option from the following.




D. II only


Explanation- *


68. In which area was rahul sankrityayan active in the non-cooperation movement of 1920 ?

A. Chhapra

B. Delhi

C. Lucknow

D. patna

Explanation-Rahul Sankrityayan,original name kedar Pandey was active in Chhapra in the Non- Cooperation Movement.Hence, A is correct option.


69. Which of the following statements is correct ?

A. in 1857, the maharajas of darbhanga, dumraon and hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men and money

B. in 1857 , the4 maharajas of darbhanga , dumraon and htwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men but not with money

C. in 1857 , the maharajas of darbhanga , dumraon and hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with money but not with men

D. in 1857, the maharajas of darbhanga , dumraon and hatwa and their fellow landlords opposed the English




70. Who highlighted the plight of the peasants of champaran by writing under pseudonyms like ‘dukhi’ , ‘dukhi atma’ , dukhi hridaya’ ?

A. peer Muhammad Moonis

B. Rajendra Prasad

C. Sahajananda Saraswati

D. S.N. Sinha

Explanation- Sahajananda Saraswati highlighted the plight of the peasants of Champaran by writing under pseudonyms like Dukhi, Dukhi Atma, Dukhi Hridaya. Hence, C is correct option.


71. Let clip_image002 be defined by clip_image004. Then the value of clip_image006 is

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 80



72. Ifclip_image008, then the value of n is

A. 6

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3



73. The variance of 7, 7, 7, 7, 7 is

A. 7

B. 0

C. 2

D. 7.5



74. Given, log2 = 0.30103. then log5 is

A. 0.2301

B. 0.5302

C. 0.720

D. 0.6987



75. The solution of the equation clip_image010 is given by

A. clip_image012

B. clip_image014

C. clip_image016

D. clip_image018



76. The series

clip_image020 is

A. Arithmetic series

B. Geometric series

C. Harmonic series

D. Exponential series



77. A triangle has vertices (1, 6), (3, 0) and (-3, -7). Its area in square units is

A. 10

B. 25

C. 30

D. 40


78. The angle between two lines clip_image022 and clip_image024 will be

A. 60o

B. 45o

C. 30o

D. 90o


79. If tan 60o = clip_image026, then the value of sec 60o is

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1


80. A circle has area 154 square units. Its diameters have equations clip_image028 and clip_image030. Then the radius of the circle is

A. 8 units

B. 7 units

C. 6 units

D. 5 units



81. Cloves are obtained from which of the following parts of the plants?

A. Dried leaves

B. Dried stems

C. Dried seeds

D. Dried flower buds

Explanation- Cloves are flower buds of a tree in the family Myrtaceae, Syzygium aromaticum. They are commercially harvested primarily in Indonesia, India, Madagascar, Zanzibar, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Tanzania. Hence, D is correct option.


82. Oncogenes are associated with

A. Tuberculosis

B. Hepatitis

C. Cancer

D. Typhoid

Explanation- Oncogenes is genetic material that carries the ability to induce cancer. An oncogene is a sequence of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) that has been altered or mutated from its original form, the proto-oncogene. Hence, c is correct option.


83. Which is the most reactive metal?

A. Sodium

B. Calcium

C. Iron

D. Potassium

Explanation- The reactivity series for some common metals are as:

  • Potassium
  • Sodium
  • Calcium
  • Magnesium
  • Aluminium
  • Zinc
  • Iron
  • Tin
  • Lead
  • Copper
  • Silver
  • Gold
  • Platinum


84. Who synthesized the DNA in vitro?

A. Arthur Kornberg

B. Robert Hooke

C. Edward Jenner

D. Joseph Lister



85. What was the fissionable material used in the bombs dropped at Nagasaki (Japan) in the year 1945?

A. Sodium

B. Potassium

C. Plutonium

D. Uranium

Explanation-An ordinary “atomic” bomb of the kinds used in World War II uses the process of nuclear fission to release the binding energy in certain nuclei. The principal materials used for fission weapons are U-235(Uranium) and Pu-239(Plutonium), which are termed fissile because they can be split into two roughly equal-mass fragments when struck by a neutron of even low energies. The “Fat Man” atomic bomb that destroyed Nagasaki in 1945 used 6.2 kilograms of plutonium and produced an explosive yield of 21-23 kilotons. Hence, c is correct option.


86. The scientist who first discovered that the earth revolves round the sun was

A. Newton

B. Dalton

C. Copernicus

D. Einstein

Explanation- Copernicus was first who discovered that the earth revolves around the Sun. Hence, C is correct option


87. Cosmic rays

A. Are charged particles

B. Are uncharged particles

C. Can be charged as well as uncharged

D. None of the above  

Explanation- Cosmic Rays are stable charged particles that have been accelerated to enormous energies by astrophysical sources somewhere in our universe. This consists of very, very low energy photons (energy of about 2.78 Kelvin) whose spectrum is peaked in the microwave region and which are remnants from the time when the universe was only about 200,000 years old. There are also very old remnant neutrinos in the cosmic radiation.


88. Which of the following elements is found in all organic compounds?

A. Carbon

B. Calcium

C. Nitrogen

D. Oxygen  

Explanation- The chemical compounds of living things are known as organic compounds because of their association with organisms and because they are carbon-containing compounds. Organic compounds, which are the compounds associated with life processes, are the subject matter of organic chemistry.


89. Which of the following can cause cancer as well as cure it depending upon its intensity and use?

A. Tobacco

B. Alcohol

C. Ionized radiation

D. Ultraviolet rays

Explanation- Radiation used for cancer treatment is called ionizing radiation because it forms ions (electrically charged particles) in the cells of the tissues it passes through. It creates ions by removing electrons from atoms and molecules. This can kill cells or change genes so the cells stop growing. But its excess can also cause cancer.


90. The total volume of blood in a normal adult human being is

A. 5 – 6 litres

B. 3 – 4 litres

C. 8 – 10litres

D. 10 – 12 litres  

Explanation- An average size adult has a blood volume of around 4.5 – 5.5 litres.


91. Typhoid and cholera are typical examples of

A. Infectious diseases

B. Airborne diseases

C. Waterborne diseases

D. None of the above

Explanation- Waterborne disease is easily transmitted when contaminated water is used for any of the following purposes: drinking, making ice cubes, washing uncooked fruits and vegetables, making baby formula, brushing teeth and washing dentures or contact lenses. cholera and typhoid fever are the most common of the waterborne diseases.


92. Energy is stored in liver and muscles in the form of

A. Carbohydrate

B. Fat

C. Protein

D. Glycogen  

Explanation- Glycogen is the main form of carbohydrate storage in animals and is found primarily in the liver and muscle tissue. It is readily converted to glucose as needed by the body to satisfy its energy needs. It is also called animal starch.


93. Who discovered bacteria?

A. Fleming

B. Lamble

C. Temin

D. Leeuwenhoek

Explanation-Antony van Leeuwenhoek is regarded as the father of microbiology. He is known for the discovery of bacteria.


94. The reason of large-scale diversity among the organisms is

A. Adaptation

B. Cooperation

C. Mutation

D. Polyploidy  

Explanation- Mutations are changes in the genetic sequence, and they are a main cause of diversity among organisms. These changes occur at many different levels, and they can have widely differing consequences. In biological systems that are capable of reproduction, we must first focus on whether they are heritable; specifically, some mutations affect only the individual that carries them, while others affect all of the carrier organism’s offspring, and further descendants.


95. What is vermiculture?

A. The science of raising worms

B. The science of studying animals

C. The science of studying fishes

D. The science of killing worms

Explanation- Vermiculture is the management of worms. When earthworms are used primarily for the production of compost, the practice is referred to as vermicomposting.


96. The smallest organism, capable of autonomous growth and reproduction, is

A. Virus

B. Bacteria

C. Mycoplasma

D. Bacteriophage  

Explanation-Mycoplasmas are the smallest known free-living organisms. They are known to have the power of growth and reproduction.


97. The first human heart transplant was performed in

A. America

B. England

C. South Africa

D. France 

Explanation-On December 3, 1967, 53-year-old Lewis Washkansky receives the first human heart transplant at Groote Schuur Hospital in Cape Town, South Africa. Hence, c is correct option.


98. The average blood flow through kidney per minute is

A. 1000 cc

B. 1200 cc

C. 200 cc

D. 500 cc

Explanation-The kidneys are essential organs in the body which function to remove water and waste products. The average blood flow through kidneys per minute is 1000-1200 ml /minute. Hence, A is correct option.


99. A plant bud is

A. An embryonic shoot

B. An embryonic leaf

C. An endosperm

D. A seed  

Explanation- A plant bud is an undeveloped or embryonic shoot and normally occurs in the axil of a leaf or at the tip of the stem. Once formed, a bud may remain for some time in a dormant condition, or it may form a shoot immediately. Buds may be specialized to develop flowers or short shoots, or may have the potential for general shoot development. Hence, A is correct option.


100. Which of the following gases is used in cigarette lighters?

A. Butane

B. Methane

C. Propane

D. Radon

Explanation- A cigarette lighter is a portable device used to generate a flame. Butane, C4H10, is a component of natural gas that is used as fuel for cigarette lighters. Hence, A is correct option.


101. The union health minister launched Mental Health Policy on

A. 20th October, 2014

B. 10th October, 2014

C. 5th October, 2014

D. 11th July, 2014


Explanation- On 10th October, 2014,the union health ministry launched the country’s first ever mental health policy to provide access to good quality treatment to mentally ill people with the focus on those living in poverty. Hence, B is correct option.


102. Prime minister Narendra Modi launched Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana on

A. 11th October, 2014

B. 10th November, 2014

C. 26th August, 2014

D. 15th August, 2014


Explanation-Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 11 october,2014 launched the ‘Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana’ promising to bring a demand driven model for village development and expressed confidence that the scheme with its “constructive politics” will have a “viral effect” across the nation. Hence, A is correct option.


103. The 11th Metropolis Congress was organized in Hyderabad in

A. September 2013

B. January 2014

C. October 2014

D. November 2014


Explanation-The 11th Metropolis Hyderabad World Congress will take place from 7 to 10 October 2014 in Hyderabad, India with the theme “Cities for all”. For the first time in its history, Metropolis will gather mayors and governments leaders from India and worldwide in one of the largest cities in India. This 11th edition of the Metropolis World Congress will be a unique exchange and networking opportunity for city managers, urban planners, international NGOs, foundations, academics, and other important stakeholders from around the world.Hence, C is correct option.


104. In which area was the Indo-US military exercise ‘Yudh Abhyas 2014’ held?

A. Solan (Himachal Pradesh)

B. Gairsen (Uttarakhand)

C. Ranikhet (Uttarakhand)

D. Poonch (Jamu and Kashmir)

Explanation-Indo-US combined military training exercise ‘Yudh Abhyas 2014’, part of an ongoing bilateral defence cooperation, commenced on September 17 at Ranikhet and Chaubattia(Uttarakhand).Hence, C is correct option.


105. Which of the following groups of political parties could not win a single seat in the 16th Lok Sabha Election?


B. SP, BSP, National conference, RLD


D. DMK, RLD,National conference, BSP


Explanation-*** 16th Lok Sabha Election 2014 results were declared on 16 May 2014. The elections were conducted in 543 constituencies across India. National Democratic Alliance (NDA) led by BJP was successful at securing 334 seats, whereas, UPA led by INC was successful at securing only 60 seats.


106. President Pranab MUKHERJEE on 7th October, 2014 presented the LAL bahadur shastri national award for excellence in public administration, academics and management for the year 2014 to

A. V. Sampath

B. Dr. A.S.Pillai

C. Arvind Mayaram

D. Ajit Dobhal


Explanation-The President of India, Shri Pranab Mukherjee presented the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for Excellence in Public Administration, Academics and Management for the year 2014 to Dr. Apathukatha Sivathanu Pillai at Rashtrapati Bhavan. Hence, B is correct option.


107. Who has been appointed as the chairman of the 7th central pay commission constituted by the government of India in February 2014?

A. Justice B.K. Singh

B. Justice Swatanter Kumar

C. Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur

D. Justice Mridula Singh


Explanation-The Prime Minister has approved the composition of the 7th Central Pay Commission,” the finance ministry said in a statement on Tuesday. Former Supreme Court Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur has been appointed as chairman of the Commission, with oil secretary Vivek Rae as full time Member.Hence, C is correct option.


108. Justice J.S. Verma committee’s report, 2013 deals with

A. Centre-state relations

B. Change in law pertaining to offences against women

C. The fundamental rights

D. Rights of children

Explanation- On December 23, 2012 a three member Committee headed by Justice J.S. Verma, former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, was constituted to recommend amendments to the Criminal Law so as to provide for quicker trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women. Hence, B is correct option.


109. How many members are elected from Bihar to the loksabha

A. 20

B. 30

C. 35

D. 40

Explanation-Bihar sends 40 Members of Parliament to the Lok Sabha. The State Legislative Assembly is bicameral in nature and has a strength of 243 members.Hence, D is correct option


110. What is the unique festival of Bihar?

A. Deepawali

B. Bisu

C. Vinayak Chaturthi

D. Chhath puja

Explanation-The Chhath Puja, which is also known as Dala Chhath, is a significant festival celebrated in Bihar, Uttar Pradesh and in many other states of India as well. The puja is being done since time immemorial with unvarying faith that the Sun God fulfills wishes if the ritual of ‘araghya’ is offered with complete devotion. The people also worship ‘Chhathi Maiya’ on this day.Hence, D is correct option.


111. Who among the following has been awarded the Nobel prize for literature in 2014?

A. Kailash satyarthi

B. Malala yousafzai

C. Jean tirole

D. Patrick modiano

Explanation-The Nobel Prize in Literature 2014 was awarded to Patrick Modiano”for the art of memory with which he has evoked the most ungraspable human destinies and uncovered the life-world of the occupation”. Hence, D is correct option.


112. Which among the following European union countries is the first to official recognize the state of Palestine ?

A. Sweden

B. Denmark

C. Norway

D. Italy

Explanation- Sweden’s newly-formed center-left government is set to recognize Palestine as a sovereign state. If Stockholm proceeds with the move it will be the first EU-member to officially endorse Palestinian statehood. Hence, A is correct option.


113. Which one of the following countries has decided in January 2014 to make military service compulsory for all its adult males?

A. North korea

B. Uae

C. Israel

D. Turkey

Explanation-The UAE has decided to make military service compulsory for all adult males, but kept it optional for women. “The Service will cover military training at the armed forces, 9 months for high school grads & 2 yrs for those with less than high school.” Hence, B is correct option.


114. What is the theme of global financial development report, 2014?

A. Hunger and poverty

B. Corruption and fraud in corporate sector

C. Financial inclusion

D. Global recession and the third world 

Explanation- The theme of Global Financial Development report, 2014 is the financial inclusion introduced indicators are various measures of access to financial institutions and markets. Hence, C is correct option.


115. Who among the following has/have figured in ‘time’ magazine’s list of 25 most influential teens of 2014?

A. Malia and sasha obama

B. Kendall and kylie jenner

C. Malala yousafzai

D. All of them 

Explanation-Time‘s 25 Most Influential Teens of 2014: Sasha, 13, and Malia Obama, 16 ;Nash Grier, 16: Viner; Kylie, 17, and Kendall Jenner, 18; Malala Yousafzai, 17: education activist. Hence, D is correct option.


116. The seventh BRICS summit is proposed to be held in 2015 at

A. Durban , south Africa

B. Ufa, Russia

C. New delhi, india

D. Sanya, china 

Explanation- Explanation-7th BRICS Summit will be held in Russian city of Ufa in 2015. The announcement was made in Fortaleza Declaration on 16 July 2014 on the sidelines of 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil. Ufa is the capital city of the Republic of Bashkortostan, Russia, and the industrial, economic, scientific and cultural centre of the republic.Hence, B is correct option.


117. The international day of persons with disabilities is celebrated on

A. 10th December

B. 24th October

C. 19th November

D. 3rd December 

Explanation-International Day of Persons with Disabilities (December 3) is an international observance promoted by the United Nations since 1992. It has been celebrated with varying degrees of success around the planet. The observance of the Day aims to promote an understanding of disability issues and mobilize support for the dignity, rights and well-being of persons with disabilities. Hence, D is correct option.


118. Amnesty international is an organization which is associated with

A. Protection of women ‘s rights

B. Protection of human rights

C. Abolition of untouchability

D. None of the above

Explanation-Amnesty International (commonly known as Amnesty and AI) is a non-governmental organisation focused on human rights. The stated objective of the organisation is “to conduct research and generate action to prevent and end grave abuses of human rights, and to demand justice for those whose rights have been violated.” Hence, B is correct option.


119. In October 2014, India has been re-elected for three years as a member to

A. The UN security council

B. The UN general assembly

C. The UN economic and social council (ECOSOC)

D. The world bank

Explanation-India was re-elected to the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) after it got 183 votes, the highest number in the Asia Pacific group, followed by Japan and Pakistan with 181 votes each in elections held in the 193-member UN General Assembly. Hence, C is correct option.


120. Angola , Malaysia, new Zealand , Spain and Venezuela were elected as non-permanent members on 16th October, 2014 to serve in

A. The UN General Assembly

B. The UN Trusteeship Council

C. The UN Human Rights Commission

D. The UN Security Council

Explanation-16 October 2014 – In three rounds of voting the United Nations General Assembly elected Angola, Malaysia, New Zealand, Spain and Venezuela to serve as non-permanent members on the Security Council for two-year terms beginning on 1 January 2015. The new members will serve on the Council until 31 December 2016.Hence, A is correct option.


121. Which one of the following countries won the highest number of Gold Medals at the Winter Olympic Games held in Sochi in February 2014?

A. Canada

B. Russia

C. Norway


Explanation- Russia won 33 medal out it 13 are gold medal which the highest number of gold medals at winter Olympic games held in Sochi in February 2014.Hence, D is correct option.


122. Who among the following cricket all-rounders cracked the fastest century in one-day international cricket history in January 2014?

A. Darren Bravo

B. James Faulkner

C. Glenn Maxwell

D. Corey Anderson

Explanation-New Zealand all-rounder Corey Anderson cracked the fastest century in one-day international cricket history, reaching three figures in just 36 deliveries against the West Indies. Hence, D is correct option.


123. Who was the winner of the Champions League T-20, 2014?

A. Kolkata Knight Riders (India)

B. Rajasthan Royals (India)

C. Sydney Sixers (Australia)

D. Chennai Super Kings (India)

Explanation-The 2014 Champions League Twenty20 was the sixth edition of Champions League Twenty20, an international Twenty20 crickettournament. At the finals on 4 October 2014, the Chennai Super Kings defeated the Kolkata Knight Riders by eight wickets to secure their second CLT20 title.Hence, D is correct option.


124. What was India’s position in the 17th Asian games in 2014?

A. 8th

B. 6th

C. 3rd

D. 4th

Explanation-In 17th Asian Games in 2014,China has topped the medal table for the ninth successive times in the Asian Games where as 8th was India’s position. Hence, A is correct option.


125. Who among the following was the Gold Medal winner in 17th Asian Games Men’s Freestyle 65kg Wrestling?

A. Jittu Rai

B. Sandeep Kumar

C. Rajat Chauhan

D. Yogeshwar Dutt

Explanation-India won 57 medals (11 gold, 10 silver, 36 bronze).Yogeshwar Dutt was the Gold Medal winner in the 17th Asian Games Men’s Freestyle 65 kg Wrestling.Hence, D is correct option.


126. Which country achieved the fifth position in the 20th Commonwealth Games?

A. Sri Lanka

B. Nepal

C. England

D. India  

Explanation-India in the 2014 Commonwealth Games, Glasgow, Scotland stood at the fifth position in the rankings after closing its account with total 64 medals (15 Gold, 30 silver and 19 Bronze).Hence, D is correct option.


127. Who won her first Grand Slam Australia Open Tennis Competition, 2014 (Women’s Singles)?

A. Li Na

B. Dominika Cibulkova

C. Sara Errani

D. None of them 

Explanation-The 2014 Australian Open was a tennis tournament that took place at Melbourne Park between 13–26 January 2014.Lina won her first Grand Slam Australia Open Tennis Competition, 2014(Women’s Single). Hence, A is correct option.


128. The winner of the SAFF Tournament, 2013 was

A. India

B. Maldives

C. Afghanistan

D. Nepal 

Explanation-The 2013 South Asian Football Federation Championship, commonly referred to as 2013 SAFF Championship, was the 10th SAFF Championship for men’s national football teams organized by the South Asian Football Federation (SAFF).The Afghanistan won their maiden SAFF trophy against India by 0-4.Hence, C is correct option.


129. Which award is given for excellence in sports?

A. Jamnalal Bajaj Award

B. Arjuna Award

C. Tagore Award

D. Moortidevi Award 

Explanation-The Arjuna Awards are given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, government of India to recognize outstanding achievement in National sports. Hence, B is correct option.


130. ‘Prince of Wales Cup’ is associated with the game of

A. Hockey

B. Cricket

C. Football

D. Golf 

Explanation-The Prince of Wales Trophy, also known as the Wales Trophy, is an award presented by the National Hockey League (NHL) to the Eastern Conference (formerly the Wales Conference) playoff champions, prior to the final series of games for the Stanley Cup.Hence, A is correct option.


131. Who among the following was not associated with the excavation of Harappa and Mohenjo-daro?

A. R.D. Banerjee

B. K.N. Dikshit

C. M.S. Vats

D. V.A. Smith

Explanation-Vincent Arthur Smith, CIE, was a British Indologist and art historian. Smith was born in Dublin on June 3, 1848 which was then part of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland. Hence, D is correct option.


132. Gautama Buddha gave his first sermon at

A. Vaishali

B. Kaushambi

C. Sarnath

D. Pawanpuri 

Explanation- Gautam Budhdha gave his first sermon at Sarnath. The Buddha said, “I teach one thing and one thing only: suffering and the end of suffering,” which is the ultimate goal of Buddhism. Hence, C is correct option.


133. Who is called ‘the Napoleon of Ancient India’?

A. Chandragupta Maurya

B. Pushyamitra

C. Kanishka

D. Samudragupta

Explanation-Samudragupta was the son and successor of Chandragupta. Samudragupta was popularly known as the “Indian Napoleon” as he conquered many territories without making much of an effort. It is said that after Emperor Ashoka, the empire of Samudragupta was the supreme. Hence, D is correct option.


134. which Chinese traveller visited India during Harshavardhana’s rules?

A. Fa-Hien

B. Hiuen-Tsang

C. I-tsing

D. Taranath 

 Explanation-The Chinese traveller, Hiuen Tsang, who visited India during Harvardhan’s reign, has given a vivid description of the social, economic and religious conditions, under the rule of Harsha spoke highly of the king. Harsha’s death, once again, left India without any central paramount power. Hence, B is correct option.


135. what is ‘Dhai Din Ka Zhonpda’?

A. Mosque

B. Temple

C. Saint’s hut

D. Tower

Explanation-Qutub-ud-Din-Aibak, first Sultan of Delhi, in AD 1199 contemporary to the other one built at Qutub-Minar complex of Delhi known as Quwal-ul-Islam mosque (power of Islam). Adhai Din Ka Jhonpda, a Vaishnava Hindu temple built in 1153 and converted into a mosque by Qutubuddin Aibak in 1193, is situated on the lower slope of Taragarh hill. Aikbak’s successor, Shams al-Din Iltutmish added to the mosque.Hence, A is correct option.


136. In which language was ‘Tuzuk-i-Baburi’ written?

A. Persian

B. Arabic

C. Turkish

D. Urdu

Explanation-Tuzuk-i-Baburi (Baburanamah) is the autobiography of Zahiruddin Muhammad babur, the founder of the Mughal empire in India. Babur wrote it in Turkish language; Mughal imperial officer, Abdur Rahim Khan Khan-i-Khanan, son of Bairam Khan Khan-i-Khanan, translated it into Persian. Hence, C is correct option.


137. Who was the commander of Rana Pratap’s army in the Battle of Haldighat?

A. Amar Singh

B. Man Singh

C. Hakim Khan

D. Shakti Singh

Explanation-Maharana Pratap was a very popular Hindu Rajput ruler of Mewar, a region in north-western India in the present day state of Rajasthan. Pratap’s army had a contingent of Afghan warriors led by his commander, Hakim Khan Sur in the battle of Haldighati.Hence, C is correct option.


138. Where was the capital of Shivaji?

A. Raigarh

B. Sindhudurg

C. Poona

D. Kolhapur

Explanation-Shivaji Bhonsle also known as Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, was an Indian warrior king and a member of the Bhonsle Maratha clan. Shivaji carved out an enclave from the declining Adilshahi sultanateof Bijapur that formed the genesis of the Maratha Empire. In 1674, he was formally crowned as the Chhatrapati (Monarch) of his realm at Raigad. Hence, A is correct option.


139. In which year was the regulating act passed?

A. AD 1757

B. AD 1765

C. AD 1773

D. AD 1793 

Explanation-Regulating Act (1773), legislation passed by the British Parliament for the regulation of the British East India Company’s Indian territories, mainly in Bengal. It was the first intervention by the British government in the company’s territorial affairs and marked the beginning of a takeover process that was completed in 1858.Hence,C is correct option.


140. Who was the Governor-General of India in 1857?

A. Wellesley

B. Dalhousie

C. Canning

D. Minto 

Explanation-Charles John Canning, 1st Earl Canning KG, GCB, GCSI PC, known as The Viscount Canning from 1837 to 1859, was an English statesman and Governor-General of India during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.Hence, C is correct option.


141. After which incident Mahatma Gandhi had called Non-Cooperation Movement as his ‘Himalayan Blunder’?

A. Chauri-Chaura

B. Kheda Satyagraha

C. Nagpur Satyagraha

D. Rajkot Satyagraha

Explanation-Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was among India’s most fervent nationalists, fighting for Indian independence from British rule.He had called non- cooperation movement as his ‘Himalaya Blunder’ after the incedent of Chauri-Chaura.Hence, A is correct option.


142. Which movement started after the Partition of Bengal?

A. Civil Disobedience Movement

B. Swadeshi Movement

C. Quit India Movement

D. Non-Cooperation Movement

Explanation-The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in the anti-partition movement which was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal. Hence, B is correct option.


143. Who was the first Indian woman President of the Indian National Congress?

A. Mrs. Annie Besant

B. Sucheta Kripalani

C. Sarojini Naidu

D. Indira Gandhi  

Explanation- Sarojini Naidu is the first Indian woman president of INC in 1925 Kanpur session. Annie Besant is the first woman president of INC in 1917 Calcutta session. Hence, C is correct option.


144. Where did Madam Cama hoist the first tricolour flag in 1907?

A. London

B. Paris

C. Moscow

D. Stuttgart 

Explanation- Madam Bhikaji Rustom Cama’s flag was collectively designed by Madam Bhikaji Cama, Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (Veer Savarkar) and Shyamji Krishna Varma. The flag was unfurled by Madam Cama on 22 August 1907 at Stuttgrat, Germany, and attained the status of the first Indian flag to be hoisted at the foreign land. Hence, D is correct option.


145. Who was the founder of Nalanda University?

A. Chandragupta Vikramaditya

B. Kumargupta

C. Dharampal

D. Pushyagupta  

Explanation-Kumaragupt founded Nalanda University, a renowned university of ancient India.Hence, B is correct option.


146. At which place in Bihar Gandhiji had his first Satyagraha?

A. Champaran

B. Chhapra

C. Bettiah

D. Patna 

Explanation-Gandhi, the exponent of the Satyagraha movement, staged his first satyagraha in Champaran, in Bihar. It was in 1917. The poor peasants, the indigo growers, of the district invited Gandhi to go there to see for himself the grievances of the much exploited peasants there. Hence, A is correct option.


147. Who was the author of ‘ Indica’?

A. Vishnugupta

B. Megasthenes

C. Diamechus

D. Pliny

Explanation- Megasthenes, ancient Greek historian and diplomat, author of an account of India, the Indica, in four books. An Ionian, he was sent by the Hellenistic king Seleucus I on embassies to the Mauryan emperor Chandragupta. Hence, B is correct option.


148. Which Sikh guru was born at Patna?

A. Nanak

B. Teg Bahadur

C. Hargobind

D. Gobind Singh

Explanation- Gobind Singh was born to Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh guru, and Mata Gujri in Patna. He was born while his father was on a preaching in Assam. As a child, he learnt Persian, Sanskrit, and martial skills to become a warrior. Hence, D is correct option.


149. Who was the president of Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress held in 1922?

A. Chittaranjan Das

B. S.N. Banerjee

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D. Hakim Ajmal Khan

Explanation- During the Congress meeting at Gaya in December 1922 Presided by C. R. Das who made a plea for entering the Councils, but Rajagopalachari persuaded a large majority to continue the boycott. C. R. Das resigned and with Motilal Nehru and others formed the Swarajya party within the Congress. Hence, A is correct option.


150. By which name is Jay Prakash Narayan known?

A. Lokmanya

B. Loknayak

C. Lokhitvadi

D. Lokneta

Explanation-Jayaprakash Narayan (Harsu Dayal Srivastava), popularly referred to as JP or Lok Nayak was an Indian independence activist, social reformer and political leader, remembered especially for leading the mid-1970s opposition against Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, for whose overthrow he called a “total revolution”. Hence, B is correct option.


Tags: , ,

5 responses to “Bihar Public Service Commission-2015”

  1. Dc says :

    in question no 120
    ans should be D


  2. Abhishek anand says :

    Many answers are wrong ,please try to correct them


  3. Mahtab says :

    Couple of answers are incorrect but overall nice effort and solid explanations.


  4. shashi shekhar jha says :

    very excellent work 🙂


  5. s k jha says :

    ISLPTA was signed in 1998 and came into effect in 2000

    CSO compiles only CPI (UNME)


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